Know-How Exchange : Strategy

Hi,

I would say that regulations differ as per country.You would have to check with your local tax office or tax consultant.In some E.U. countries you are allowed to ship goods to the customer 7 days prior to invoicing.Is that what is meant by your question?

Rgds

Adam

Absolutely, why not?

What prompted the question, have you had a problem with doing this?

hi jasmeet

ideally, WHY NOT.

i am sure you have been facing lots of confusion since the introduction of the VAT in india a couple of months back.

i believe you are referring to FMCG goods being distributed and sold by sales force to retailers.

ideally, when a salesman is visiting an outlet he is supposed to have his Cash Memo/Bill Book with him. if he finds any retailer is short of any brand/product (i.e. brand X) that retailer didnt order the previous call, the salesman can always issue a new Cash Memo/Bill in favour of the X of Y quantity and give the retailer the cash memo as well as the product.

now there are certain companies who collect sales orders/delivery orders on a particular sales day of the week and deliver those goods on the next sales day(i believe yours is such a one). then again you can follow the scenario i mentioned above OR OF COURSE you can deliver the brand X and once back to distribution premises make a Bill on the same day in favour of that retailer, to be delivered on next visit. The reason i said Bill to be prepared on the delivery date is to maintain the stock and sales registers in harmony and also ensure the tax authority doesnt find any discrepency in all the books.

check the following link to a similar question asked in this forum earlier.

https://www.marketingprofs.com/ea/qst_question.asp?qstid=6592

i hope this helps.

cheers!!